The Word "Worship", the Divine Name and John 1:3 in the New World Translation

These are answers to some of the questions from http://www.goodcathinfo.com/ccarch55ques.htm which used to be called 50 Questions Every Jehovah's Witness Should Be Asked

In the New World Translation, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" is used in reference to God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev.5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" ( Mt. 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the reason for this inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read?

Reply: Did you know that the New Jerusalem Bible, New English Bible, Smith & Goodspeed's An American Translation, the 20th Century NT does the exact same thing as the NWT? Is it because they are also made by Jehovah's Witnesses and therefore trying to mislead the public? No, it is because PROSKUNEW as well as the Hebrew equivalent SHACHAH has a wider application, and it is often the same word used to bow to mere humans. Take note of the following:
"Then the king Nebuchadnezzar fell upon his face, and worshipped Daniel" Dan 2:46 KJV, RV, ASV
"And all the congregation blessed the LORD God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the LORD, and the king." 1Chron 29:20 KJV, ASV
Here, king David is given the same worship as Jehovah.
So it is necessary for Bible versions to make a distinction, as they all do (see Matt 18:26).

The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" (Gr-lord) as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1 Thess 5:2, 1 Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1 Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2 Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?

Reply: Why are there absolutely NO Bible translations that are consistent in translating "kyrios"? What does "kyrios" mean?
"ltA-1,Noun,2962,kurios>
properly an adjective, signifying "having power" (kuros) or "authority," is used as a noun, variously translated in the NT, "'Lord,' 'master,' 'Master,' 'owner,' 'Sir,' a title of wide significance, occurring in each book of the NT save Titus and the Epistles of John. It is used (a) of an owner, as in Luke 19:33, cp. Matt. 20:8; Acts 16:16; Gal. 4:1; or of one who has the disposal of anything, as the Sabbath, Matt. 12:8; (b) of a master, i.e., one to whom service is due on any ground, Matt. 6:24; 24:50; Eph. 6:5; (c) of an Emperor or King, Acts 25:26; Rev. 17:14; (d) of idols, ironically, 1 Cor. 8:5, cp. Isa. 26:13; (e) as a title of respect addressed to a father, Matt. 21:30, a husband, 1 Pet. 3:6, a master, Matt. 13:27; Luke 13:8, a ruler, Matt. 27:63, an angel, Acts 10:4; Rev. 7:14; (f) as a title of courtesy addressed to a stranger, John 12:21; 20:15; Acts 16:30; from the outset of His ministry this was a common form of address to the Lord Jesus, alike by the people, Matt. 8:2; John 4:11, and by His disciples, Matt. 8:25; Luke 5:8; John 6:68; (g) kurios is the Sept. and NT representative of Heb. Jehovah ('Lord' in Eng. versions), see Matt. 4:7; Jas. 5:11, e.g., of adon, Lord, Matt. 22:44, and of Adonay, Lord, Matt. 1:22; it also occurs for Elohim, God, 1 Pet. 1:25. " Vine's Expository Dictionary

So sometimes, the title applies to God, sometimes to Jesus, other times to angels and mere men. The context will usually help us decide who it is being applied to. I do not know of any Bible version that translates it as "lord" for every application of the word "kyrios." The real question should be, "Why do most English Bible Versions fail to translate the Divine Name YHWH/JHVH, or do so inconsistently, but instead substitute it with the generic 'Lord' each of it's 6828 occurences?" It might also be pointed out that many other have also used the Divine Name Jehovah in the New Testament.

Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you, ..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears, and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would it read?

Reply: The above statement is neither accurate or fair. The original languages did not have commas, so it is left up to the translator to determine where to put the comma. In the book How To Enjoy The Bible by E. W. Bullinger, it states, "The word 'verily'[truly] points us to the solemnity of the occasion, and to the importance of what is about to be said. The solemn circumstance under which the words were uttered marked the wonderful faith of the dying malefactor; and the Lord referred to this by connecting the word 'to-day' with 'I say.' 'Verily, I say unto to thee this day.' This day, when all seems lost, and there is no hope; this day, when instead of reigning I am about to die. This day, I say to thee, 'Thou shalt be with me in paradise.'
'I say unto thee this day' was the common Hebrew idiom for emphasizing the occasion of making a solemn statement(see Deut. iv. 26, 39, 40; v. 1; vi. 6; vii.11; viii. 1; 11, 19; ix. 3; x. 13; xi. 2, 8, 13, 26, 27, 28, 32; xiii. 18; xv. 5; xix. 9; xxvi. 3, 16, 18; xxvii. 1, 4, 10; xxviii. 1, 13, 14, 15;  xxix. 12; xxx. 2, 8, 11, 15, 16, 18, 19; xxxii. 46). p. 48  5th ed. 1921
 See also Syriac versions of the Bible, along with Rotherham, Concordant Literal NT and The Riverside New Testament.
Greg Stafford, in his book "Jehovah's Witnesses Defended. Elihu Books," makes an excellent point with regards to the "precise wording of the text." He says on page 552 that "Luke 23:43 is the only instance apart from Luke 23:34 where a verb of speech is used with semeron and where hoti does not separate it from that verb."
Below is the Vatican Manuscript 1209 (one of the oldest surviving mss) and they have placed the comma similarly to the NWT.

         Other sources:
Tines men houtos anaginoskousin* _Amen lego soi semeron*_ kai hypostizousin* eita epipherousin, hotiet' emou ese e to paradeiso._("Some indeed read this way: 'Truly I tell you today,' and put a comma; then they add: 'You will be with me in Paradise.'"--Hesychius of
Jerusalem, an ecclessiastical writer who died about 434 C.E. Greek text found in Patrologia Graeca, Vol. 93, columns 432, 1433.
Alloi de ekbiazontai to rhema, stizontes eis to <<Semeron,>> hin' e to legomenon toiouton* <<Amen ego soi semeron*>> eita to, <<met' emou ese en to paradeiso,>> epipherontes. ("But others press upon the saying, putting a punctuation mark after 'today,' so that it would be said
this way: 'Truly I tell you today'; and then they add the expression: 'You will be with me in Paradise.'")--Theophylact, an ecclessistical writer who died about 1112 C.E. Edition: Patrologia Graeca, Vol. 123, column 1104.

Alloi -- to rheton ekbiazontai* legousin gar dein hypostizontas (254: hypostizantas) anaginoskein* amen lego soi semeron*>> eith' houtos epipherein to* met' emou ese etc. ("Others press upon what is spoken; for they say it must read by putting a comma thus: 'Truly I tell you
today,' and then adding the expression this way: 'You will be with me' etc.")--Scholia 237, 239, 254. Text found in Novum Testamentum Graece, editio octava critica maior, by C. Tischendorf, Vol. I, Leipzig, 1869, under Luke 23:43.

Kai eutys eipen moi hoti amen amen semeron lego soi, met' emou ese en to parad[eiso]. ("And immediately he said to me: 'Most truly today I tell you, You will be with me in Paradise.'")--Descent into Hades, an apocryphal writing of the fourth century C.E. Text found in Novum Testamentum Graece, editio octava critica maior, by C. Tischendorf, Vol. I, Leipzig,869, under Luke 23:43.

Ho de eipen auto* semeron lego soi aletheian hina se ekho eis ton parad[eison] met' emou. ("And he said to him: 'Today I tell you the truth, that I should have you in Paradise with me.'")--Gospel of Nicodemus (=Acts of Pilate)b287, an apocryphal writing of the fourth or fifth century C.E. Text found in Novum Testamentum Graece, editio octava critica maior, by C. Tischendorf, Vol. I, Leipzig, 1869, under Luke 23:43.

Therefore, at least from the fourth century C.E. until well into the twelfth century C.E. there were readers who understood the text at Luke 23:43 as "Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in Paradise." On that very day, when Jesus died, he was in Sheol or Hades, and not in Paradise. (Psalms 16:8-11; Acts 2:22-32) He was dead and in the tomb until the third day and was then resurrected as "the firstfruits" of the resurrection. (Acts 10:40; 1 Corinthians 15:20; Colossians 1:18) Thus, the word "today" at Luke 23:43 does not give the time of the evildoer's being with Jesus in Paradise.

Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "all things", but in Isa 44:24, God says that he "by myself" created the heavens and the earth and asks the question "Who was with me?" when the heavens and the earth were created. How can be since if Jesus was created by God, then he would have been with God when everything else was created?

Reply: John 1:3 does not say that Jesus created all things. " All things were made through him; and without him was not anything made that hath been made." ASV
The New Oxford Annotated Bible-NRSV, and others have linked/cross-referenced Proverbs 8:22-30 with John 1:3, where it describes the created Wisdom/Jesus as a master workman beside God as he is creating. Click here for more.
The use of the terms, "alone", "who was with me" and "by myself" does not necessarily mean what you would like it to mean, especially where a king is concerned:
Look at Daniel 4:30 and Isaiah 63:3. Daniel 4:30 has been translated in the following ways:
1) "The king reflected and said, 'Is this not Babylon the great, which I myself have built.'" NASV.
2) "The king was saying, 'Great Babylon! Imperial palace! Did I not build it alone.' " —Jerusalem Bible ("JB").
3) "The king spake and said, Is this not Babylon the great, - which I myself have built," — J.B. Rotherham ("RO")
4) "The king was answering and saying: "Is this not Babylon the Great, that I myself have built".— NWT.

Was Nebuchadnezzar really the only person in Babylon who took part in the construction and building of the whole city by himself? Or, was the construction during his time, accomplished by his authority, his word and no other's?
Isaiah 63:3 proclaims: "I [Jehovah] have trodden the wine press alone of the peoples there was no man with me." (ASV) Did Jehovah personally punish the peoples and nations that had offended Him? Who was it exactly that destroyed 185,000 men in Sennacherib's army? It was Jehovah's angel acting on the word of Jehovah. (2 Kings 19:35, 36) Did Jehovah personally punish Babylon or did He use the Medes and Perians to accomplish His will? (Daniel 5:26-28, 30-31) All these acts were done by Jehovah's permission and authority; and by His alone, but it was others who carried it out.—Ezekiel. 36:33, 36.

Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence". How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence through him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself.

Reply: No, because the Bible puts limitations on the word "ALL." Consider 1 Corinthians 15:27, 28 in the New English Bible,

"Scripture says, 'He has put all things in subjection under his feet.' But in saying 'all things', it clearly means to exclude God who subordinates them; and when all things are thus subject to him, then the Son himself will also be made subordinate to God who made all things subject to him..."

2 Tim 1:15 "You are aware of the fact that 'ALL' who are in Asia turned away from me, among whom are Phygelus and Hermogenes."--New American Standard Bible

Here the word PAS (=All) obviously refers to 'a great number', because the words hOI EN Thi ASIAi do not really include 'all' the people in Asia, but the refer explicitly to Christians (non-Christians are already 'turned away' from God). Moreover, these words don't even include 'all' of the Christians, because Onesiphuros (and perhaps others) remained loyal to God.

Acts 2:17 "And it shall be, in the last days saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh; And your sons and your daughters shall prophesy..."--Rotherham's Emphasized Bible

Here, again, PAS (=All) is used in a more restricted sense. The Spirit will hardly be poured out upon "ALL flesh", since this verse refers exclusively to Christians.

You will notice that when Jesus is spoken in reference to creation, it is always in a passive sense, as THROUGH/DIA him.

In looking at the Greek word here for "apart from" CWRIS, Thayer's Greek Lexicon says of its occurence in John 1:3 "without the intervention (participation or co-operation) of one."
In this way, the Bible in Living English handles it superbly, "Everything was made by his agency." Jn 1:3
Even Origen acknowledged this, "And the apostle Paul says in his epistle to the Hebrews: 'At the end of the days He spoke to us in his Son, whom He made heir of all things, 'through whom' also He made the ages, showing us that God made the ages through His Son, the 'through whom' belonging, when the ages were made to the Only-begotten. Thus if all things were made, as in this passage also, THROUGH [DIA] the Logos, then they were not made by the Logos, but by a stronger and greater than He. And who else could this but the Father?" Origen's Commentary on John, ANF 10, Book 2, chap. 6, p. 328