Friday, May 25, 2018

The LOGOS as the Angel of Jehovah, by Ernst Wilhelm Hengstenberg


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The LOGOS as the Angel of Jehovah, by Ernst Wilhelm Hengstenberg

From Christology of the Old Testament 1865

That the angel of the Lord is the Logos of John, who is connected with the supreme God by unity of nature, but personally distinct from him, was...the universal doctrine of the early Church. The Fathers of the first Synod in Antioch, in a letter sent to Paul of Samosata before his deposition (Colet. conc, coll Vend i. p. 866, 70), affirm that "the angel of the father, being himself Lord and God, MEGALHS BOULHS AGGELOS, appeared to Abraham and to Jacob, and to Moses in the burning bush." Justin Martyr, in his Dialogue witH Tryphon, § 59—61, proves that Christ spoke to Moses out of the thorn-bush, and says that he is called the angel of the Lord, EK TOU DIAGGELLEIN TOIS ANQRWPMOIS TA PARA TOU PATROS KAI POINTOU TWN APANTWN. See, further, Constitutt. Apost. v. 20 b., Coteler. i. p. 325; Irenaeus, c. Haeres. iv. 7, § 4; Theophilus, ii. 31; Clemens Alex,, Paed. i. 7; Tertullian, c. Prax. c. 16; Cyprian, c. Jud. ii. 6; Hilary, de trin. iv. § 32; Eusebius, demonstr. evang. v. 10 sqq.; Cyril, Hieros. p. 322, ed. Ox.; Chrysostorn, hoM. 48 in Gen.; Amltrosim, defide ad Graf. opp. t. ii. p. 460. Theodoret says (interr. 5 in Ex. opp., t. i. ed. Hal. p. 121, on Ex. iii. 2), KAI OLON DE TO CWRION DEIKNUSI QEON ONTA TON OFQENTA KEKLHKE DE AUTON KAI AGGELON INA GNWMEN WS O OFQEIS OUK ESTIN O QEOS KAI PATHR, ALL O MONOGENHS UIOS H MEGALHS BOULHS AGGELOS.

We will now proceed to point out certain general grounds, which favour the conclusion that the angel of the Lord is the Logos, in addition to the argument which we have already drawn from the separate passages of the Old Testament; and to reply to all those who adopt a different hypothesis.

The testimony of the New Testament is of the utmost importance. This is given in many different ways. The most direct is Heb. iii. 1, "wherefore, holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling, consider the apostle and High Priest of our profession (Christ) Jesus." "There is something very remarkable," says Bleek, "in the application of the term APOSTOLOS to Christ." It is the more striking, from the fact that, when the author wrote, the word apostle had already acquired the force of a proper name. The most natural course, therefore, would have been to avoid the appearance of placing Christ upon a par with the apostles. There can be no doubt, however, that the expression is used for the purpose of pointing out the identity of Christ with the angel of Jehovah under the Old Testament (Benyel: "legatum deI patris"), and is thus a kind of proper noun. It is only on this supposition that it has any bearing upon the exalted dignity which the context necessarily requires. 'APOSTOLON is followed by ARCIEPEA. And so also there are passages of the Old Testament (Ezek. ix. and Zech. i. 12), in which the angel of the Lord is represented as "High Priest."

This passage in the Epistle to the Hebrews is closely connected with other passages in the New Testament, in which Christ is spoken of as sent by God (APOSTELLW) is the word commonly employed, and on some occasions PEMPW). These passages are too numerous to be regarded as accidental. There is the less room for such a supposition, from the fact that the frequent use of the expression is apparent solely in the discourses of Christ and in the writings of John, who has moulded his style, far more than the others, after the model of his Master, and in whose writings the independent use of these terms goes hand in hand with the fact, that he inserts them more frequently than the other Evangelists in the sayings of Christ. The explanation of the latter circumstance is, that he paid peculiar attention to the deeper significance of these terms; and the same reason necessarily led to his own frequent use of them. As the expression "Son of man" which the Saviour applied to himself, always points to Daniel, so do these expressions invariably contain an allusion to the personal identity of Christ and the Old Testament angel or messenger (<i>Gesandte, one sent) of the Lord. This is all the more obvious, from the fact that it is a customary thing with John to introduce nice and obscure allusions to the Old Testament, and that in this respect he differs widely from Matthew, who prefers what is obvious and lies upon the surface. Compare Matt. x. 40, "he that receiveth me receiveth him that sent me" (TON APOSTEILANTA ME): i.e., "he that receiveth you, my apostles, receiveth me, and he that receiveth me, the Malakh YHWH [angel of Jehovah], receiveth the Lord himself." Again, chap. xv. 24, OUK APESTALHN, "I am not sent;" and chap. xxi. 37. Also, Luke iv. 43, "I must preach the kingdom of God to other cities also, for therefore am I sent" (APESTALHN). And in addition...compare chap. iii. 17, "for God sent not (OU GAR APESTEILEN) his Son into the world to condemn the world ver. 34, "for he whom God hath sent (APESTEILEN) speaketh the words of God;" chap. v. 36, 37, "the works that I do bear witness of me, that the Father hath sent me (APESTALKEN), and the Father himself, which hath sent me (O PEMYAS ME) hath borne witness of me;" ver. 38, "and ye have not his word abiding in you, for whom he hath sent (APESTEILEN), him ye believe not;" chap. vi. 29, 57, and vii. 28, "he that sent me (O PEMYAS ME) is true, whom ye know not;" ver. 29, "I know him, for I am from him, and he hath sent me" (avreo,TetXe); chap. viii. 42, "if God were your father ye would love me, for I proceeded forth and came from God, neither came I of myself, but he sent me" (APESTEILEN) ; chap. x. 36, xi. 42, xvii. 3,8, 18,21,23,25, xx. 21: "then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you, as my Father hath sent me (APESTALKEN), even so send (PEMPW)) I you;" 1 John. iv. 9, 10, "in this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent (APESTALKEN) his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him. Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent (APESTEILE) his Son to be the propitiation for our sins "ver. 14, "the Father (APESTALKEN) hath sent the son to be the Saviour of the world."


In John xii. 41, again, we read, "these things said Esaias, when he saw his (Christ's) glory, and spake of him." According to Is. vi. Isaiah saw the glory of Jehovah. But if it be maintained that the angel of Jehovah is an ordinary angel, and is not in any way connected with Christ, the link between Jehovah and Christ is broken. It is perfectly obvious, however, that John does not assert the identity of Jehovah and Christ on his own authority, but stands upon such firm and clear scriptural ground that he is under no necessity of entering into discussions. Delitzsch objects (p. 355), that Isaiah did not see the glory of the angel of Jehovah, but the glory of Jehovah himself, and that, notwithstanding this, John speaks of him as seeing the glory of Jesus. But we have already observed, that the passages in which the angel of Jehovah is mentioned prove, that in every case, in which appearances of Jehovah are referred to, these appearances are to be understood as occurring through the medium of his angel, even where this is not expressly stated.

John speaks of himself as the disciple whom Jesus loved (chap. xiii. 23; xix. 26; xx. 2; xxi. 7, 20). That this expression takes the place of a proper name is evident, not only from the frequency with which it is employed, but also from the fact that it is used in cases, in which there is no immediate reference to the love of Jesus to the apostle. It is obviously a paraphrase of the name John. The actual meaning of this name is "whom Jehovah loves;" and in the love of Jesus, John beheld a fulfilment of the pious wish, which dictated the name.

In chap. i. 11 John sets out with the view, that Christ was the angel of the Lord who had come in the flesh. He says Christ came EIS TA IDIA, and the IDIOI did not receive him. If we suppose the angel of the Lord to have been an ordinary angel, there is no foundation for this expression. The Israelites are described in the Old Testament as the people and inheritance of Jehovah (Ex. iv. 2:2, 23, and 2 Sam. vii. 24, "and thou preparedst for thyself thine Israel as a people for ever, and thou didst become their God"), and of his angel, through whom all his intercourse with his people was carried on. Compare Ex. iii. 2 ("and the angel of the Lord appeared to him in a flame of fire"), and ver. 7 ("and the Lord said, I have surely seen the affliction of my people which are in Egypt"). In Mal iii. 1, again, the temple is spoken of as belonging to the Lord and his covenant angel.

Not John alone, but the other "pillars" in the apostolic office start with the assumption, that Christ is the self-revealing Jehovah of the Old Testament, and thus confirm the view that has been maintained by the Church respecting the angel of the Lord. According to 1 Pet. i. 11, "the prophets searched what, or what manner of time the spirit of Christ which was in them did signify." But the prophets ascribe their revelations to the spirit of Jehovah. How, then, came Peter to substitute Christ so directly for Jehovah. unless he found a warrant for this in the Old Testament doctrine of the angel of the Lord? That the latter is always implied when the prophets speak of Jehovah, is apparent from Judges v. 23, where Deborah expressly refers to the angel of Jehovah a prophetic revelation, which she had received in a purely internal manner. In 1 Cor. x. 4, Paul says: "and did all drink the same spiritual drink; for they drank of the spiritual rock that followed them; and the rock was Christ." Here, then, we have what Delitzsch felt to be wanting in John xii. 41. The preservation of the people during their march through the wilderness, and their admission into Canaan, is expressly ascribed in the Old Testament to the angel of the Lord. Compare Ex. xxiii. 20, 21, "behold I send an angel before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared. Take heed to him, and obey his voice, rebel not against him, for he will not pardon your transgressions, <i>for my name is in him"; also Is. lxiii. 8, 9, "the angel of his presence saved them." According to 1 Cor. x. 9 ("neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents"),—Christ was the leader of Israel through the desert, and was tempted by them. In Num. xxi. 5—7 they are said to have tempted Jehovah, who is represented in Exodus as leading them in the person of his angel. The reading KURION, which Lachmann has adopted, is evidently traceable to short-sightedness. According to Heb. xi. 26, Moses esteemed the reproach which he endured for Christ's sake (ONEIDISMON TOU CRISTOU) greater riches than the treasures of Egypt. But according to the Mosaic account, he made all his sacrifices in the service of Jehovah and his angel.

In John v. 37, when Christ is telling the Jews that they will lose God if they reject him, he says, "ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape." It is inconceivable that Christ should have spoken in this manner with the giving of the law at Sinai before him, as well as Is. vi. and other passages in which Jehovah appears and speaks, except on the assumption that whenever manifestations of Jehovah are mentioned in the Old Testament, they always take place through the medium of his angel, who is connected with him by unity of nature, and who came in the flesh in Christ. That the remarks of Ode are correct, to the effect that "it was he himself who had formerly spoken to the patriarchs, and had appeared in the form of the angel" cannot for a moment be doubted, especially as there is an allusion both before and afterwards to the personal identity of Christ and the angel of the Lord in the manner already indicated, viz., ver. 36, "the Father hath sent me," ver. 38, "for, whom He hath sent, him ye believe not." The same may also be said of the expression in John i. 18, "no man hath seen God at any time; the only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." That no one has ever seen God must be an assertion entirely without foundation, and altogether at variance with history, unless we recognise a divine mediator in the angel of the Lord. For, otherwise, such passages as speak of appearances and utterances on the part of Jehovah, have no connexion whatever with those which mention the angel of the Lord. And so, again, when Christ tells the Jews in John vii. 28, that from not knowing Him, they do not know God, and by rejecting him they cut themselves off from any participation in God, light is thrown upon his words by the distinction, already made in the Old Testament, between the unseen God and his revealer, who is the medium of all approach to Him.

That the words of Christ in John viii. 56 assume the identity of Christ and the angel of the Lord, has already been pointed out [elsewhere].

In Col. i. 15, Christ is described as "the image of the invisible God," and in Heb. i. 3, as APAUGASMA THS DOXHS KAI CARAKTHR THS UPOSTASEWS ("the brightness of his glory and the express image of his person"). Further investigation will show, that in these passages, expressions which were current among the Jews in connexion with the Metatron or angel of the Lord, are transferred to Christ. There is something strange in the passages themselves. One cannot but feel throughout that they do not enunciate the doctrine in question for the first time, but point to something already in existence, and ultimately to the Old Testament, which alone could possibly afford a pledge of certainty. It is only so far as the expressions themselves are concerned, that they are in anyway connected with the Jewish theology of the time. Bahr has correctly remarked, that "the idea of a revealer of the deity was to them one of the primary truths of religion, which they expressed in language current at the time." The same remarks apply to the doctrine of John respecting the Logos. The manner in which John treats of the Logos shows very clearly, that his intention is not to make known this doctrine for the first time, but simply to show the relation in which Christ stands to the doctrine alluded to. The very name Logos was not originally a term peculiar to John, and does not occur at all among the terms which he ordinarily employs. That there must be some connexion between the Logos of Philo and the Logos of John is a thought which immediately suggests itself, and the attempt to do away with this connexion has been altogether futile. And, beside this, the correspondence between the Logos and the angel of the Lord, which strikes any one at the first glance, would be very remarkable if it were merely elicited by exegesis.—Whenever Jesus speaks of having lived before man or before the world, he assumes the existence of the doctrine of the angel of the Lord, in the form maintained by the Church. There would, otherwise, have been no link of connexion whatever between these doctrines and the minds of the hearers. What was new was simply the personal application.

Lastly, the angel of the Lord, whom we meet with constantly throughout the whole of the Old Testament, disappears entirely from the New.—We will not confine ourselves to the name, but look also at the facts of the case. An angel, who usually speaks in the name of Jehovah, and is represented as the guardian of the Church, has completely disappeared (the passage in Rev. xxii. 7, where an angel speaks in the name of Christ, stands quite alone in the whole of the New Testament), unless he is to be found in Christ. With the Church's view of the Maleach Jehovah the enigma is solved, and the connexion between the two Testaments, as well as their perfect harmony, brought into the clearest light.

With these distinct and manifold confirmations, which the orthodox view receives from the New Testament, the few plausible arguments, by which the attempt has been made to prove that the New Testament regards the "angel of Jehovah," referred to in the Old, as merely an ordinary angel, are deprived of all their force.

Delitzsch observes (p. 334), "Wherever AGGELOS KURIOS (the Greek rendering of MALAK YHWH), is mentioned in the New Testament, whether he be called AGGELOS KURIOU or hO AGGELOS KURIOU, confessedly a created angel is intended." But as we have already shown, hO AGGELOS KURIOU (the angel of the Lord) and not AGGELOS KURIOU (an angel of the Lord) corresponds MALAK YHWH and the former is never found, except in cases in which the angel has been mentioned before. Matt. i. 24, for example, "he did as the angel of the Lord (hO AGGELOS KURIOU) had bidden him," is very instructive in this respect, when compared with ver. 20, "behold an angel of the Lord (AGGELOS KURIOU) appeared unto him in a dream ;" also Luke i. 11, "there appeared unto him an angel of the Lord" (AGGELOS KURIOU), when compared with ver. 13, "but the angel (hO AGGELOS) said unto him." Compare also Matt. xxviii. 2 with ver. 5, and Acts xii. 7 with ver. 8. But if the case had been different, if hO AGGELOS KURIOU (the angel of the Lord) were used in any instance entirely by itself, with reference to an ordinary angel, this would prove nothing. We have already admitted that MALAK YHWH does not of necessity denote the Logos, but that there are passages in which the angel may possibly be regarded as an ideal person. And hO AGGELOS KURIOU would in such cases have to be explained in the same way. The proof that in a considerable number of passages in the Old Testament the angel of the Lord can only be the Logos, we have already found in the fact that this term, which points to a person exalted infinitely above the angels, is applied to the angel who speaks and acts in the name and person of God. It would be necessary therefore to point out the same fact, in connexion with those passages (if any existed), in which hO AGGELOS KURIOU occurred.

"But," continues Delitzsch, "the New Testament furnishes still more direct testimony against the divine nature of the Old Testament MALAK YHWH. In Acts 7:30, Stephen calls the angel of Jehovah, who appeared to Moses in the burning bush, AGGELOS KURIOU—In the original passage, Ex. iii. 2, it is stated that "the angel of the Lord appeared to him in a flame of fire out of the thorn-bush." In Acts vii. 30, "There appeared to him in the wilderness of Mount Sinai ayyeXos tcvpiov in a flame of fire in a bush." Thus in the Acts of the Apostles we find first of all a general term. But this proves nothing. The angel is also an angel. And it is evident from what follows immediately afterwards that it is not an ordinary angel that is intended. In ver. 31, we read of "the voice of the Lord," and in ver. 32, "I am the God of thy fathers," &c. On ver. 30, Bengel observes, "The Son of God (see following verses): at first Moses did not know who it was, but immediately afterwards he recognised Him from the voice."

"Again," says Delitzsch,p. 335, "tha angel, of whom he says in ver. 38 that he spake to Moses in Sinai, cannot have been regarded by him as a divine being, for in ver. 53 he says, (who have received the law by the disposition of angels (EIS DIATAGAS AGGELWN)'; and with this Paul agrees in Gal. iii. 19 and Heb. ii. 2."—In Acts vii. 38 we read, "this is he that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the Mount Sinai, and spake with our fathers, who received the lively oracles to give unto us." Moses is placed between the angel and the congregation, in connexion with the giving of the law. Bengel correctly observes, that "Stephen does not say with the angels, but with the angel of the covenant;" compare Mal. iii. 1. In the original account there is no allusion to an angel at all. Moses converses with Jehovah. But the angel is understood as a matter of course, since all the revelations of Jehovah are made through him. Moreover there is in Mai. iii. 1, a distinct scriptural authority, for the intervention of a Mediator on this occasion. And, on the other hand, Stephen would never have ventured to supply the mediation of an angel on his own authority merely. Let any one read Ex. xix. and see for himself, whether the scene is one befitting an ordinary angel. And even ver. 53 ("who received the law by the disposition of angels") does not favour such a hypothesis; (compare Gal. iii. 19, where the law is called DIATAGEIS DI AGGELWN). Again, if an ordinary angel were intended in ver. 38, the expression in ver. 53 would be directly contradictory. In the one case we have an angel, (only one can be regarded as speaking TOU LALOUNTOS AUTW) in the other, on the contrary, we have a plurality of angels. But the case is entirely different, if the angel of the Lord is alluded to there. He is usually attended by a retinue of inferior angels, and so far as Sinai is concerned, the presence of such a retinue is expressly attested in such passages. Deut. xxxiii. 2, "he comes with myriads of holy ones;" ver. 3, "all his holy ones are in thy hand (i.e., serve thee, 0 Israel) ," and Ps. Ixviii. 17, "the chariots of God are twenty thousand, even thousands of thousands, the Lord is among them, Sinai in the sanctuary." "The chariots are attended by hosts of angels. In the midst of them is the Lord, as formerly on Sinai. The one thing, which is common to Zion and Sinai, is the presence of the Lord in the midst of the numerous hosts of his angels." In ver. 38 the angel of the Lord occupies just the same place as Jehovah in Ex. xix. The angels in ver. 53 and Gal. iii. 19 are taken from Deut. xxxiii. In the latter passage, however, the angels are not mentioned in the place of the Lord, but the Lord comes attended by them.

The only passage in the New Testament, which presents a difficulty at first sight, is Heb. ii. 2, 3, where the law is apparently placed below the gospel, on account of the latter being "spoken by the Lord," whereas the former was merely "spoken by angels." But it cannot have been the author's intention to ascribe the giving of the law, the most glorious work of the Old Testament, to merely inferior angels, without any direct participation on the part of the Lord and his revealer, in direct opposition to the Old Testament; for in chap. xii. 26 he distinctly affirms that "the voice of the Lord shook the earth at the giving of the law." The only ground, therefore, upon which he can possibly intend to exalt the gospel above the law, is that the revelation of the Lord as MALAK YHWH was not so perfect as in his incarnation, and for this very reason there is a certain sense in which we must make a distinction between the angel of the Lord and the Son of God, instead of saying directly, as the Fathers and most of the early theologians do, that "the angel of the Lord is identical with the Son." [Compare the remark of Grotius on Ex. 20, "errant graviter, qui hic per angelum intelligent secundam dei hypostasin. Variis enim multiplicibusque modis deus locutus est patribus; at per filium ultimis demum temporibus."]


Thursday, May 24, 2018

A Brief History of the Church After the Nicene Council


325 AD - Constantine convenes the Council of Nicaea in order to develop a statement of faith that can unify the church. The Nicene Creed is written, declaring that "the Father and the Son are of the same substance" (homoousios). Emperor Constantine who was also the high priest of the pagan religion of the Unconquered Sun presided over this council.

According to the Encyclopedia Britannica: 

"Constantine himself presided, actively guiding the discussions and personally proposed the crucial formula expressing the relationship of Christ to God in the creed issued by the council, `of one substance with the Father'."

The American Academic Encyclopedia states: 

"Although this was not Constantine's first attempt to reconcile factions in Christianity, it was the first time he had used the imperial office to IMPOSE a settlement."

At the end of this council, Constantine sided with Athanasius over Arius and exiled Arius to Illyria.

328 AD - Athanasius becomes bishop of Alexandria.

328 AD - Constantine recalls Arius from Illyria.

335 AD - Constantine now sides with Arius and exiles Athanasius to Trier.

337 AD - A new emperor, Contantius, orders the return of Athanasius to Alexandria.

339 AD - Athanasius flees Alexandria in anticipation of being expelled.

341 AD - Two councils are held in Antioch this year. During this council, the First, Second, and Third Arian Confessions are written, thereby beginning the attempt to produce a formal doctrine of faith to oppose the Nicene Creed.

343 AD - At the Council of Sardica, Eastern Bishops demand the removal of Athanasius.
346 AD - Athanasius is restored to Alexandria.

351 AD - A second anti - Nicene council is held in Sirmium.

353 AD - A council is held at Aries during Autumn that is directed against Athanasius.

355 AD - A council is held in Milan. Athanasius is again condemned.

356 AD - Athanasius is deposed on February 8th, beginning his third exile.

357 AD - Third Council of Sirmium is convened. Both homoousios and homoiousios are avoided as unbiblical, and it is agreed that the Father is greater than His subordinate Son.

359 AD - The Synod of Seleucia is held which affirms that Christ is "like the Father," It does not however, specify how the Son is like the Father.

361 AD - A council is held in Antioch to affirm Arius' positions.

380 AD - Emperor Theodosius the Great declares Christianity the official state religion of the empire.

381 AD - The First Council of Constantinople is held to review the controversy since Nicaea. 

Emperor Theodosius the Great establishes the creed of Nicaea as the standard for his realm. The Nicene Creed is re-evaluated and accepted with the addition of clauses on the Holy Spirit and other matters.

If you believe that Nicaea just formalized the prevalent teaching of the church, then there really should not have been any conflicts. Why should there be? If it were the established teaching of the church, then you would expect people to either accept it, or not be Christians. It would be like me being a member of the Communist Party. I would join it knowing that they do not believe in the ownership of private property, no conflict. But now, say after I have been a member of the party for a few years, someone decides to introduce a proposal that we allow the ownership of private property, not everyone in the party is going to agree, the result is conflict. This is similar to what happened in the church. It was not the established teaching, and when some faction of the church tried to make it official, the result was major conflict.

It was mainly a theological power grab by certain factions of the church. The major complication throughout all this was that the emperors were involved. At Nicaea it was Constantine that decided the outcome. Then as you can see, we have the flip-flopping of opinion with the result that Athanasius is exiled and recalled depending on who is in power. We even have in 357 AD the declaration that homoousios and homoiousios are unbiblical, and that the Father is greater than His subordinate Son.

This is 180 degrees from Nicaea. It is definitely not the Trinitarian formula.

In 380 AD Emperor Thedosius declares Christianity the state religion. One can come to the conclusion that whichever way Theodosius favors, that is the way in which it is going to end. This is exactly what happened next.

In 381 AD the struggle was finally ended by the current emperor, Theodosius the Great, who favored the Nicene position. Just like at Nicaea, the EMPEROR again decided it. The emperors were dictating the theology of the church.

The big difference now was that there was not going to be any more changing sides. It was now the state religion. You cannot make Christianity the state religion and then change its beliefs every few years. It would undermine its credibility as the true faith. The Trinity was now the orthodox position, and the state was willing to back it up. Debates however, would continue for years to come. 
~Juan Baixeras

Wednesday, May 23, 2018

The New World Translation Bible and the Words "In Union With"

A comment I noticed recently online: "When criticizing the NWT, John 1:1 is usually the first scripture mentioned. But there is another which disturbs me more. In John 14:10 (and other verses where Jesus speaks of being "IN" the Father), The NWT has changed it to say "in union with". (they must have thought that word "IN" sound too suggestive of the Deity of Jesus)."

Reply: The ASV has: "Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I say unto you I speak not from myself: but the Father abiding in me doeth his works." The NWT has "Do you not believe that I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me? The things I say to YOU men I do not speak of my own originality; but the Father who remains in union with me is doing his works."

Albert Barnes in his commentary writes of this Scripture: "The Father that dwelleth in me - Literally, 'The Father remaining in me.' This denotes most intimate union, so that the works which Jesus did might be said to be done by the Father. It implies a more intimate union than can subsist between a mere man and God. Had Jesus been a mere man, like the prophets, he would have said, “The Father who sent or commissioned me doeth the works;” but here there is reference, doubtless, to that mysterious and special union which subsists between the Father and the Son."

This is why the Williams New Testament can translate this verse as: "Do you not believe that I am in union with the Father and that the Father is in union with me? I am not saying these things on my own authority, but the Father who always remains in union with me is doing these things Himself."

Goodspeed in his New Testament has: "Do you not believe that I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me? I am not the source of the words that I say to you, but the Father who is united with me is doing these things himself."

The Twentieth Century New Testament has: "Do not you believe that I am in union with the Father, and the Father with me? In giving you my teaching I am not speaking on my own authority; but the Father himself, always in union with me, does his own work."

Also, this Scripture does not sound suggestive of the Deity of Jesus unless you are a Sabellianist.t

I have heard this complaint before from Rob Bowman (The New World Translation On Trial), where he writes:

"prepositions do have recognizable functions and meanings and cannot be translated in whatever manner one chooses. In violation of this, the NWT translates the simple preposition "in" (Greek, _en_) with unnecessary variations which often obscure or alter the meaning of the passage. This is illustrated in 1 John 5:20 where the NWT reads in part, 'And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ.' Reading this translation, one would never suspect that _in union with_ and _by means of_ translate the same simple Greek preposition. There is no sound reason for this variation."

Reply: What does being "In Christ" or "in the true one" mean to a modern reader? Bowman makes the fallacy that only an extremely literal or word-for-word translation will convey accurately the author's words through 2 milleniums.

"He[the translator] thinks that as long as he keeps the "same" words he cannot be too far wrong with the meaning. Instead, what he has done is not translation at all- he has put a new, and therefore wrong message in the bible. Whenever this happens, the problem has become very serious indeed." Norman Mundhenk, What Translation are you Using, The Bible Translator, Oct 1974, pp 419,420

For instance, in 1Samuel 24:3 the NWT uses the phrase "ease nature" while the original has "cover his feet". Is this is a mistranslation? After all the New World Translation is supposed to be literal Bible. But other literal Bibles such as the NKJV and the NASB also do not use the words "cover his feet". They use "relieve himself." This follows the original meaning better and it is an improvement.

No one is trying to obscure anything. Thayer's Lexicon under EN has,

"ingrafted as it were in Christ, in fellowship and union with Christ, with the Lord...Since such union with Christ is the basis on which actions and virtues rest, the expression is equivalent in meaning to by virtue of special fellowship or union with Christ."

See also Wallace's Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, 372-75 and BDAG under _EN_ (4c)

The Good News Bible has at 1 John 5:20,  "We live in union with the true God - in union with his Son Jesus Christ."
An American Translation by Smith & Goodspeed has, "we are in union with him who is true, through his Son Jesus Christ."
The Charles B. Williams New Testament has, "We are in union with the True One, through his Son Jesus Christ."
The Weymouth New Testament in Modern Speech has, "We are in union with the True One - that is, we are in union with his Son Jesus Christ." See also 21st Century NT.
The Contemporary English Version uses the term "because of" here at 1 John 5:20, and Barclay uses "indissolubly bound."

The Revised English Bible frequently uses similar terms in place of "the simple preposition "in" (Greek, _en_)" so obviously, there is sound reason for this variation.

Monday, May 21, 2018

The Spirit Not a Person

 From an Email: The doctrine of theTrinity is also significant in terms of the truth of revelation. In 1 Cor. 2, Paul tells us that the hidden things of God have been revealed to us by God's Spirit, the Holy Spirit. In verse 11 Paul writes, "For who among men know the thoughts of a man except the spirit of the man, which is in him. Even so the thoughts of God no one knows except the Spirit of God." Paul's logic is hard to fault. Who would better know what you are thinking than you? Similarly, who would better know the truths  of God than God's own Spirit? But what if the HS does not share the divine essence but is a lesser one (even a none divine one)? Then, according to Paul's logic, the HS would not necesarrily be in the best position to know the truths of God, and if that is so, we are in deep trouble in relation to Scripture. Scripture clearly teaches that revelation of God's truth comes through the Spirit and that the Spirit inspired Scripture (1 Cor 2:9-13). Believing this to be so and believing the Spirit to be coequally God so thathe really knows the truth of God, evangelicals take the Bible to be God's Word and understand it as a true revelation from God about himself, ourselves, etc. As Paul says, who would better know what someone is thinking than that person himself? If the HS doesn't share the divine essence withthe Father and the Son, he is not in a position to know. The implicationsfor our knowledge of God are staggering!
Reply: You quoted verse 11, ""For who among men know the thoughts of a man except the spirit of the man, which is in him. Even so the thoughts of God no one knows except the Spirit of God."

I would say that the phrase "spirit of the man" helps us to understand "the Spirit of God," much like the "spirit of error" tells us how to view the "spirit of truth" at 1 John 4:6.

"The spirit of man bears the same relation to man as the spirit of God bears to God (1 Cor. 2:11). As the spirit of man is not another person distinct from himself, but his human consciousness or mind by which he is able to be self-aware and contemplate things peculiar to himself, so the spirit of God is not another person distinct from God. It is that consciousness and intelligence that is essential and peculiar to Him whereby He manifests amd reveals Himself to man. As the spirit of man means the man himself (the essence of a man is his mind), so the spirit of God means God Himself. The parallel usage of mind and spirit is seen in the Apostle Paul's citation of Isaiah 40:13 ('Who has directed the spirit of the Lord, or as His counselor has instructed him?') and in Romans 11:34 and 1 Corinthians 2:16 where 'spirit' is rendered 'mind.'

If the 'spirit of truth' in John 14:17 is a person, then 'the spirit of error' in 1 John 4:6 must also be a person, since the two are directly contrasted. The fact is, that each 'spirit' represents an influence or a power under which a person acts, but neither is a person in itself." p. 597, One God & One Lord by Graeser, Lynn and Schoenheit.

Let us look at some other examples of "the spirit of" in the Bible:

"And all flesh died that moved upon the earth, both birds, and cattle, and beasts, and every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth, and every man: all in whose nostrils was the breath of the spirit of life" Gen 7:22 ASV
"the spirit of their father Jacob revived" NJB "he recovered from the shock" TEV Gen 45:27
"whom I have filled with the spirit of wisdom" ASV "whom I have endowed with skill" NJB Ex 28:3
"and have filled him with the spirit of God" NJB "I have filled him with my power" TEV Ex 31:3
"have filled him with the spirit of God" NJB "God has filled him with his power" TEV Ex 35:31
"this spirit of suspicion comes over him" NJB "a husband becomes suspicious of his wife" TEV Numbers 5:14
"Joshua, son of Nun was filled with the spirit of wisdom" NJB "Joshua, son of Nun was filled with wisdom" TEV Deut 34:9
"and the spirit of Yahweh began to stir him" NJB "the LORD's power began to strengthen him" TEV Judges 13:25
"the spirit of Elijah has come to rest on Elisha" NJB "the power of Elijah is on Elisha" TEV 2 Kings 2:15
"the God of Israel stirred up the spirit of Pul" ASV "the God of Israel roused the hostility of Pul" NJB 1 Chron 5:26
"the spirit of the Philistines" ASV "the hostility of the Philistines" NJB 2 Chron 21:16

More examples can be allowed, but I think you get the gist of it here. The Spirit of God is God's power, his breath, it is God Himself. There is no difficulty here, it is simply not another person within a triune Godhead.

"After being exalted to the right hand of God and receiving the sacred breath as promised from the Father, he poured out all this you see and hear." Acts 2:33 Unvarnished NT

Saturday, May 19, 2018

Justin Martyr on Jesus as a Second God, by Alvan Lamson


Justin Martyr on Jesus as a Second God, by Alvan Lamson 1865

That the inferiority of the Son was generally, if not uniformly, asserted by the ante-Nicene Fathers, has been admitted by several learned advocates of the doctrine of the Trinity. Cudworth fully and expressly asserts it of "the generality of the Christian doctors for the first three hundred years after the Apostles' times"; and Brucker, Petavius, and Huetius...and we may add Le Clerc, entertained substantially the same opinion. That the opinion is well founded, has been incontestably proved, we conceive, by Whiston, author of "Primitive Christianity Revived"; and by Whitby, in a work which never has been, and, we hazard nothing in saying, never can be, refuted. That they viewed the Son as distinct from the Father is evident from the circumstance that they plainly assert his inferiority. Besides, they often either directly affirm it, or use language which necessarily implies it.

[In fact, the Fathers of the council of Nice, and their predecessors, never thought of asserting that the Son and the Father were numerically one. This was a refinement of later times. The term "consubstantial," as used by these Fathers and by the Platonists, the learned well know, implied, not a numerical, but only a specific identity. By saying that two beings were consubstantial, as that the Son was consubstantial with the Father, they only meant to affirm that they partook of the same common or specific nature, as two individual men partake of a common nature, — that is, a human nature,— though they constitute two distinct beings, having a separate will and consciousness.]

They considered him distinct and subordinate. This appears, as it regards Justin...in the account given of his views of the Logos. We shall now exhibit further evidence of the fact.

First, we would observe that Justin expressly contends for two Gods and two Lords, against what he considered the cavils of the Jews. He speaks of the "Lord in heaven" as "Lord of that Lord who appeared on earth," and the source of all his power, titles, and dominion; "the cause of his being powerful and Lord and God." The expression, "The Lord rained fire from the Lord out of heaven upon Sodom," he contends, shows that they are really two in number. The same is implied, he says, in the words, "Adam has become as one of us": words, he maintains, which are not to be regarded as a mere figure of speech, as sophists contend. He then quotes the passage from Proverbs already repeatedly referred to; and adds, whence "you may understand, if you will attend, that this progeny of the Father was begotten of him before all creatures; and that which is begotten, as all know, is different in number from that which begets it"; that is, they constitute two beings numerically distinct. Again: "There is another God and Lord under the Creator of the universe, who is also called Angel, because he announces to men what the Creator of the universe — above whom there is no other God — wishes to declare He who is said to have appeared to Abraham, to Jacob, and to Moses, and is called God, is other than the God who made all things. I say, in number, but not in will; for he never did anything except what the Creator of the universe — over whom there is no other God — willed him to do and say." On this, point, the language of Justin is too plain to be misunderstood. Trypho had challenged him to show that there is mentioned in the Old Testament any other Lord and God except the Supreme. In reply, he maintains that there is another often spoken of, who appeared to the patriarchs, — the Son and minister of the Supreme; voluntarily begotten of him, not from eternity, — this he nowhere asserts, — but before the creation of the world, that he might be employed as his agent in its production and afterwards in executing his commands: for all the Old Testament theophanies, according to Justin, belong to the Logos, or Christ; not to the Supreme God, whose visible personal appearance upon earth he regarded as impossible and absurd.

Again: Justin frequently applies to the Son such phrases as these, — "next in rank," or "next after" God; as the Logos, or Son, is "the first power after God the Father and sovereign Lord of all." Again: "We reverence him next after God." And he sometimes states the ground of this reverence; which is, not because he is of one essence with the Father, but "because for our sakes he became man, and partook of our infirmities, that through him we might be healed." Such phrases, implying inferiority, we say, occur, not once, but repeatedly; and their import cannot be mistaken.

Of the derivation of the Son from the Supreme God, and his subjection to him as the minister of his will, of his names and offices, and especially of his title to be called God in an inferior sense of the term, the following account is given. He is God, because he is the first-born of every creature; the "Lord of hosts, by the will of the Father giving him the dominion";. and, "according to the will of the Father, God." Again: he "received of the Father, that he should be King and Christ and Priest and Angel, and whatever other such things" (that is, titles, rank, and offices) "he has and had." Again: he "came according to the power of the Omnipotent Father given to him." God gave glory to Christ alone, whom he constituted a light to the nations. Again: the Lord and Father of the universe is represented as raising him from the earth, and placing him at his right hand. He expressed reliance on God, says Justin, for support and safety; nor, he continues, does he profess to do anything of his own will or power. He refused to be called "good"; replying, "One is good, — my Father, who is in heaven." Again: Justin speaks of him in the following terms: "Who, since he is the first-begotten Logos of God, is God"; that is, he is God by virtue of his birth: in other words, he derived a divine nature from God, just as we derive a human nature from human parents. This was what Justin and others meant when they spoke of the divinity of Christ.

Friday, May 18, 2018

Adding the Indefinite Article at John 10:33


Someone at the "Jehovah's Witnesses and Biblical Discussion Group" on facebook posted the above image from biblehub and their objection that the New World Translation Bible had added the letter "a" at John 10:33.

All Bibles add words, simply put. Have you ever noticed all those words in italics in the King James
Version and the New American Standard Bible? Those are words that are not in the original text, yet
there are thousands of them.

Also, the Greek word for "God" here is anarthrous which means it can be translated with the indefinite "a."

Now take note of how others have translated this:

“Claim to be a god.”—New English Bible

“Makest thyself a god.”—John Bowes, 1870

“Makest thyself a god.” Rev. Timothy Kenrick

“Makest thyself a god.” Charles Voysey 1872

“Makest thyself a god.” Joseph Cohen (Jewish) 1872

“Makest thyself a God.”—James Stark 1866

“Makest thyself a god.” Rev. R. Shepherd D.D. 1841

“Makest thyself a god.” Abiel Abbot Livermore 1844

“[M]akest thyself a god.”—Samuel Sharpe, 1881.

“Make Yourself out to be a god.”—Ferrar Fenton, 1909.

"being a man, pretend to be a God." Daniel Mace New Testament

"thou makest thyself a God" Leo Tolstoy (See also Emphatic Diaglott & Revised Version Improved and Corrected)

“Make yourself a god.” Bart Ehrman, The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture, p. 84

"making himself a god." C.H. Dodd - The Interpretation of the Fourth Gospel, p. 205, Cambridge University Press, 1995 reprint.

“[M]akest thyself ‘a god’ not ‘God’ as in C[ommon].V[ersion, KJV]., otherwise the definite article would not have been omitted, as it is here, and in the next two verses,— ‘gods..[.] gods,’ where the title is applied to magistrates, and others, because in a certain sense they are God’s representatives. Compare also Acts 28. 6; 2 Cor. 2. 4.”—Robert Young, Concise Commentary, in loc. cit.

“[F]or making a mortal like yourself into a god.”—Andy Gaus, The Unvarnished New Testament, 1991.

The Revised English Version has "make yourself a god" with a footnote that adds: "'a god.' The Greek word Theos (2316 QEOS), God or god, does not have the definite article and should be translated “a god” or “divine.” Since the Jews would never believe a man could be Yahweh, and since it was common in the Aramaic and Hebrew to call an important man 'god,' that is the way we translated it."

Even MARTIN LUTHER translated the passage as "a God!"

"Any difficulty in understanding this verse is caused the translators. Had they faithfully rendered the Greek text in verse 33 as they did in verse 34 and 35, then it would read, "...you a man, claim to be a god." One God/One Lord by Graeser, Lynn and Schoenheit p.482

"Purely on the basis of the Greek text, therefore, it is possible to translate  [John 10:33] 'a god,' as NEB does, rather than to translate God, as TEV and several other translations do.  One might argue on the basis of both the Greek and the context, that the Jews were accusing Jesus of claiming to be `a god' rather than 'God.' "- p. 344, United Bible Societies, 1980.

"'...you are making yourself God [or a god].' The Greek word for 'god' here has no definite article. I personally suspect that we are intended to understand the statement as the accusation that Jesus is compromising God's uniqueness in making extravagant claims for himself. That is, Jesus is accused of making himself 'a god.' But commentators and translators are divided on exactly how to render the accusation." ~How on Earth Did Jesus Become a God? by Larry W. Hurtado

Interesting how Biblehub adds the "a" to anthropos but not to theon even though the "a" is not actually in the Greek in either case.

Now look at this other screen capture from biblehub.



Notice how they add the indefinite "a" to both "god" and "man" here even though the Greek does not have an "a." Why did they add it here and not at John 10:33? Because the referent in Acts is not Jesus.

This is why most Christians should not translate the Bible.

It also makes literary sense to have the indefinite article A here:

    "thou, being A man,
makest thyself A god."

The NWT translation is yet again the superior translation here.

After stating all this, the group admin at "Jehovah's Witnesses and Biblical Discussion Group" muted me so that I could no longer comment.

........................................

Now let's take a different look at Phil 2:5-7..."Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: who, existing in the form of God, counted not the being on an equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, taking the form of a slave...

You have to wonder if QEOU should be taken as indefinite here, such as “form of a god”? This would highlight a parallel that is overlooked by most, the parallel between "the form of a god" and "the form of a slave."

"In the epistle to the Philippians, 2. 6—11, he represents the Logos, as being first in the form of a god, and afterwards humbling himself, laying aside his majesty, and taking the form of a servant..." [A Monotessaron; Or The Gospel of Jesus Christ, According to the Four Evangelists by John Samuel Thompson 1828]

"Agreeably to the language here made use of, it is said in another place, that Christ, being in the form of God, or in the form of a God, took upon himself the form of a servant." ~Rev. Timothy Kenrick 1828

Thursday, May 17, 2018

The Rev. Lyman Abbott on John 1:1


 There is a difference in the language of the first and last clause of this sentence in the original which is significant, but difficult, if not impossible, to render in the English. In the first clause, "the Word was with God," the article accompanies the word God; In the second clause, "the Word was God," it is wanting. We should measurably reflect the meaning by reading the passage, "the Word was with God and the Word was divine;" or "the Word was with the Father and the Word was God."
"The same was in the beginning with God." John recurs to his first statement and reiterates it, not merely for the sake of emphasis, but also to mark a real distinction between the Word and the unknown Father. For he labors to express two conflicting and even apparently contradictory ideas, the identity of the Word with God and the individuality of the Word, as distinct from the infinite and invisible deity. This contradiction subsequent theology has endeavored in vain to eliminate by drawing distinctions between essence and substance, person and being, etc., in such phraseologies as three in substance and one in essence, or three persons in one God. This philosophy of the Trinity is extra-Scriptural..." ~An Illustrated Commentary on the Gospels By Lyman Abbott D.D. 1906