Indefinite Pre-verbal Anarthrous Predicate Nominatives in John's Gospel

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In 1975 Paul S. Dixon did a study of all the anarthrous predicate nominatives in the Gospel of John in his "The Significance of the Anarthrous Predicate Nominative in John" (Dallas Seminary, 1975) wherein he concluded that there was only one instance of an indefinite predicate nominative (John 11:38), and even then it was post-copulative.

But by my examination in the Gospel of John, over half of the pre-verbal anarthrous predicate nominatives (such as in John 1:1c) are actually indefinite. For example:

John 4:19 has PROFHTHS EI SU which translates to: "you are a prophet."

John 6:70 has DIABOLOS ESTIN which translates to: "is a slanderer."

John 8:34 has DOULOS ESTIN which translates to: "is a slave."

John 8:44 has ANQRWPOKTONOS HN which translates to "a murderer."

John 8:44 has EUSTHS ESTIN which translates to "he is a liar." 

John 8:48 has SAMARITHS EI SU which translates to "you are a Samaritan."

John 9:8 has PROSAITHS HN which translates to "as a beggar."

John 9:17 has PROFTHS ESTIN which translates to "He is a prophet."

John 9:24 has hAMARTWLOS ESTIN which translates to "is a sinner."

John 9:25 has hAMARTWLOS ESTIN which translates to "he is a sinner."

John 10:1 has KLEPTHS ESTIN which translates to "is a thief"

John 10:13 has MISQWTOS ESTIN which translates to "a hired hand."

John 12:6 has KLEPTHS HN which translates to "he was a thief."

John 18:35 has MHTI EGO IOUDAIOS EIMI which translates to "I am not a Jew, am I?"

John 18:37 has BASILEUS EI SU which translates to "So you are a king?"

John 18:37 also has BASILEUS EIMI EGW which translates to "I am a king."

These examples are obviously indefinite, yet Biblical "scholars" won't allow for indefiniteness in these cases because that would allow for indefiniteness at John 1:1c (with the reading "and the word was a god").

Can you really trust these "scholars?"