(a) Hn te.houeite ne.f.shoop ngi p.shaje (b) auw p.shaje ne.f.shoop n.nahrm p.noute (c) auw ne.u.noute pe p.shaje
This translates literally to:
(a) In the beginning existed the word (b) and the word existed in the presence of the god (c) and a god was the word
Unlike Greek, the Coptic has an indefinite article ("a") and uses it at John 1:1c.
The word ne.u.noute (or neunoute) is divided into three parts: "ne" means "was," "u", or "ou" is the Coptic indefinite article (usually "a"), and "noute" is their word for "god."
We see this elsewhere in the Coptic in words like ourwme which means "a man" or ouchime which is "a woman."
The significance of this is that Coptic is the first language into which the New Testament was translated that had both a definite and an indefinite article, and if the Coptics understood the Greek text to say "the Word was God" they would have used the definite article. They did not have to use the indefinite article unless they understood the Greek to actually say "the word was a god."
Video: The Real Truth about John 1:1
From my understanding, the sahidic coptic greek was a translation developed by "the pagans" under Alexander the great, who was a polytheist that believed he had the authority to rule, because of his relationship to zeus. If a language was developed in and by a culture that believed in many gods,it would not be acceptable to translate John 1:1 stating that the word was God. It would defeat their cultural belief of many Gods. I feel the sahidic coptic greek has flws that suit their cultural beliefs.
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DeleteAlexander the Great (who was Greek) lived several hundred years before Jesus, so a translation of the New Testament at that time was not possible. Greek was also "a language...developed in and by a culture that believed in many gods".
DeleteIf Jesus is God ,how can he receive a Reverlation from GOD ,at REV 1: 1 .Help me to understand that in English. The trinity falls apart here
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