How do modern day Rabbis view the word Elohim

Q: In Genesis 1:26, God said ..."let us make man on our image". Yet in Genesis 1:27, G-d is referred to as a singularity. However again in Gen.11:5 and 7, God is referred to in the singular and plural
respectively. Again in Deut. 6:4 both singular and plural references to God are used in the this verse. How do modern day Rabbis view the word Elohim which appears over 500 times from Genesis to Malachi?


A: Elohim does not denote the notion of plurality of "Persons" as many Christian thinkers have advocated for centuries. English and Hebrew are two distinctive languages, and they do not operate by the same laws of syntax. It is characteristic of the Hebrew language to express' extension, magnitude and dignity, as well as anything in the abstract by the plural form.

Ibn Ezra observed that in other Semitic languages, an inferior speaks to his superior in the plural. Such a form of address is what is known as "plural of majesty.'"This custom still persists even in
modern countries like Britain, where the royal "we" is still commonly used which originates from the Bible! The significance of the plural form in the Hebrew usage suggests a plentitude of power and majesty (a pluralis excellentice) or of intensification, i.e., the superlative "God of gods," "the absolute highest God," "quintessence of all divine powers." Therefore we must say that the plural form of
Elohim connotes the plural of fullness; God is truly is in the fullest sense of the word, God Almighty.

Elohim' when used, also represents God as he relates to all the creatures of the world at large. Elohim describes God as the Creator and Providential Ruler in the affairs of humankind, and controlling every movement of nature in accordance with the laws He established in nature

Now, let us examine the second part of your question: What is the meaning of "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness (Gen. 1:26)

For the past 2000 years, commentaries wondered: "Why does God speak in the plural (us/our)? Why did he not say, "Let me make man in my image? Who was God speaking to? There are many answers to consider:

(a) "Let us" may convey a plural of majesty (Saadia), i.e., the English royal "we" see notes on Gen. 1:10.

(b) Some see in this expression, the plural of self-deliberation. God did not say, "Let the earth bring forth," as He did with other creatures; instead, Man was brought into being with careful planning.
(Abarbanel)

(c) Others see it as a plural of the fullness of attributes and powers. (Keil & Delitsch)

(d) Philo of Alexandria, Targum Pseudo-Jonathan, the Midrash, and Rashi were all of the view, God was speaking to His angelic host. By involving these beings in humankind's creation, God sought so to minimize any envy the angels might feel regarding humankind. Some modern scholars concur, for there are ample Biblical passages that would suggest that ancient Israelites were familiar with the notion that God took counsel with the heavenly host even though there is no clear-cut mention their creation in the early chapters of the Genesis creation narratives. Some of the ancient commentators see an allusion to the heavenly host"Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all their hosts" (Gen. 2:1).

(e) Ramban and Kimchi were of the opinion that God was soliciting creation itself to participate in giving a part of themselves in the creation of man. Some modern scholars concur

(f) Those who argue a Trinitarian view of the Deity, are as nearly all modern Christian scholars reject this old polemical interpretation. One of today's finest Christian scholars, Victor Hamilton bluntly said that Christians who wish to read in this verse the presence of Trinity are in effect, "reading more into the text than was originally the intention and understanding of the Biblical writers."

With regard to your last question concerning So God created humankind in His image, in the image of God he created them (Gen. 1:27) Kimchi and Rashi both note that the plural of majesty is never said with verbs or pronouns, but only with nouns. Nothing you cited from the Zohar would indicate the contrary.

Rabbi Dr. Michael Samuel

Originally posted at http://www.jewish.com/askarabbi/askarabbi/askr4623.htm