Friday, July 27, 2018

Jesus as Jehovah - What Does It Mean?


There is another instance in John that uses language similar to John 7:29's PAR AUTOU, and that is John 1:6's PARA QEOU:
(New World Translation)  There arose a man that was sent forth as a representative of God:  his name was John.
(GNB)  God sent his messenger, a man named John,
(Kleist & Lilly) a messenger from God
(Goodspeed) "appeared...John with a message from God."
(Wuest) "Sent off as an ambassador from God’s presence."
(Christian Bible) "dispatched by God"

Rienecker’s “Linguistic Key to the Greek N.T.” says: "Jn.1:6:
APOSTELLO: Sent forth; pass...to send, to commission, to send as an authoritative personal representative." Significantly, on Jn. 7:29 he says: “To send as an authoritative representative."

Vincent's Word Studies adds: "The preposition means _from beside_. It invests the messenger with more dignity and significance than if the writer had said, “sent by God.” It is used of the Holy Spirit, sent from the Father (Joh_15:26)."

From the Notes on Xenophon's Anabasis 1.9.1 by A.S. Walpole (Macmillan and Co. St. Martin's Press, New York, 1958)
"PARA-by, regarding the agent as the source of the confession."

Let us now turn to Luke 8:49 where we have ERCETAI TIS PARA TOU ARCISUNAGWGOU:
"a representative of the presiding officer."-NWT
"A messenger came from"--TEV, Kleist & Lilly
“A messenger came to”-- Fenton.

Kittel’s “Theological Dictionary of the New Testament” under “APOSTOLOS (XYL$) [as in John 1:6] in Judaism” states: "A saying of the Rabbis was: 'The emissary of a King is as the King himself.’”-Vol. I, pg.416  “Moses, Elijah, Elisha and Ezekiel are called MYXWL$ of God because there took place through them things normally reserved for God. Moses causes water to flow out
of the rock; Elijah brings rain and raises a dead man; Elisha 'opens the mother's womb' and also raises a dead man; and Ezekiel receives the 'key to the tombs at the reawakening of the dead' according to Ex. 37:1 ff...These four were distinguished by the miracles which God empowered them to perform and which He normally reserved for Himself."-Vol. I, pg. 419

And there we come to the crux of whether Jesus, in some capacity, can be referred to as "Jehovah."
"God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself" 2 Cor. 5:19 NKJV
Jesus further said "He who has seen Me has seen the Father" yet Jesus is not the Father, even in Trinitarian theology.

It is understandable, in light of the angelology surrounding ancient Jewish literature, and we are sure that the Christian writers were aware of them, that representatives can indeed bear God's name and title. I see nothing strange about this.
You will find in readings where angels appear in ancient literature that they will mostly have names ending in “el,” meaning “God.” A few examples will be Michael, Gabriel, Phanuel, Uriel, etc. This is in keeping with what the Bible says regarding God’s angel,
“Behold, I send an angel before thee, to keep thee by the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared. Take ye heed before him, and hearken unto his voice; provoke him not; for he will not pardon your transgression: for my name is in him.”
Why, the greatest angel in Pseudepigraphal writings is the angel Metatron (Yahoel), an allusion to Jesus Christ (who also bears God's Name -'Jehovah is Salvation'), who is called “the lesser YHWH.”

“In a first century Jewish writing entitled "The Apocalypse of Abraham," Abraham is described as being granted a visit to heaven, in much the same way that John is said to have done in the New Testament's "Apocalypse" or "Book of Revelation." Sent to guide him on his heavenly visit is an angel, who identifies himself as "Yaoel." The name Yaoel is made up of the two main names for God in the Old Testament, "Yah" or "Yahweh" (rendered in some English versions as "Jehovah") and "El." The angel thus has the same name as God. This is not because that angel is really God himself or is confused with God. No; it is because God has given his name to the angel in order to empower him. This is explicitly stated in the book itself. This is thus one of a number of examples from Jewish thought of God's agent being given God's name in order to empower him for his mission. In later times, the Samaritans made much the same sort of claims for Moses.”
Are Christians Monotheists? The Answer of St. John's Gospel by James F. McGrath

Consider the angel at Exodus 23:20:
"Behold, I send an Angel before you to keep you in the way and to bring you into the place which I have prepared. Beware of Him and obey His voice; do not provoke Him, for He will not pardon your transgressions; for MY NAME IS IN HIM."

God's Name is in Jesus name.
This name empowers him, as the CEV puts it:
"Carefully obey everything the angel says, because I am giving him complete authority, and he won't tolerate rebellion."
What does Jesus say at Matthew 28:18?
"All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me." RSV

NOW, notice how the NLT renders Exodus 23:21:
"Pay attention to him, and obey all of his instructions. Do not rebel against him, for he will not forgive your sins. He is my representative--he bears my name."

He is God's REPRESENTATIVE!!
Jesus is God's REPRESENTATIVE!
John is God's REPRESENTATIVE!

Interestingly, the name John means what?
"Gift of Jehovah."

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