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"It has become fashionable among some preachers and writers to relate Jesus' use of the words 'I am' in the Gospel according to John, in all, or most, of their contexts, to God's declaration to MOSES in Exodus 3:14, and to expound the passages concerned as if the words themselves have some kind of magic in them. Some who have no more than a smattering of Greek attribute the 'magic' to the Greek words ego eimi." John's Gospel, Expository Times (1996): 302-303) 'I am' in John's Gospel BY K. L. McKay, MA, Formerly of the Australian University
Besides John 1:1, another Scripture that comes under heavy fire in the New World Translation is John 8:58. For instance, the Good News Bible, a very free (dynamic equivalent) version, in a complete departure from its translation philosophy, translates Jesus' words at John 8:58 as "Before Abraham was born, 'I Am'."
The New World Translation, a literal (formal equivalent) Bible however translates Christ's words as "Jesus said to them...'Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.'"
The CARM website, in its criticism of the NWT's rendering of John 8:58, uses the NASB Bible to promote a more correct reading. They obviously didn't know that the 1960, 1973 NASB also has "I have been" as a variant reading in the margin for John 8:58.
If the NASB translators accepted the NWT rendering, are there maybe more Bibles that depart from the traditional I AM rendering?
The fact is, there are quite a few Bibles that do, for instance:
The Living New Testament: "The absolute truth is that I was in existence before Abraham was ever born."
The 20th Century New Testament: "before Abraham existed I was."
Noyes, G.R. N.T. (1878) _Jesus said to them, truly, truly do I say to you, from before Abraham was, I have been.__
Hanson, J.W. New Covenant (1884) _Jesus said to them,_truly, truly, I say to you, I am before Abraham was born.__
Kraeling, E.G. Four Gospels (1962) _With another amen-saying, Jesus declares to them that before Abraham was, He (Jesus) is (hint of His preexistence)._
Parker, P.G. Clarified N.T._Jesus answered, before Abraham existed, I existed._
Cotton Patch Version (1970) _To this Jesus replied, I existed before Abraham was born.__
Ledyard, G.H. New Life Testament (1969) _Jesus said to them, for sure I tell you, before Abraham was born, I was and sum and always will be._
Dr. E.C. Dymond N.T. (1972) __Yes, indeed!; said Jesus: _He saw me in prospect. The fact is, that long before Abraham was conceived in his mother_s womb, that individual who I now am had been conceived in God's mind: He had completed the plan and specifications, so to speak, and therefore He was able to give Abraham a mental preview of me__.
Good News for the World (1969) _Jesus answer, I tell you the truth. I already was before Abraham was
born.__
The Complete Bible, An American Translation Goodspeed: "I tell you I existed before Abraham was born."
New Living Translation: "I existed before Abraham was even born."
The Living Bible: "I was in existence before Abraham was ever born."
Lattimore: "Truly, truly I tell you, I am from before Abraham was born."
The New Testament, From the Peshitta Text, Lamsa: "Before Abraham was born, I was."
An American Translation, In The Language of Today, Beck: "I was before Abraham."
New Testament Contemporary English Version: "I tell you.that even before Abraham was, I was, and I am."
The Unvarnished New Testament: "Before Abraham was born, I have already been."
The New Testament, Kleist & Lilly: "I am here-and I was before Abraham."
The New Testament in the Language of the People, Williams: "I existed before Abraham was born."
The New Testament, Noyes: "From before Abraham was, I have been."
A Translation of the Four Gospels, Lewis: "Before Abraham was, I have been."
Wakefield, G. N.T. (1795) _Jesus said unto them: Verily verily I say unto you, before Abraham was born, I am He._
The Syriac New Testament, Murdock: "Before Abraham existed I was."
The Curetonian Version of the Four Gospels, Burkitt& The Old Georgian Version of the Gospel of John,
Blake & Briere "Before Abraham came to be, I was."
The New Testament Or Rather the New Covenant, Sharpe: "I was before Abraham was born."
The 20th Century New Testament 1904: "Before Abraham existed I was already what I am."
The New Testament, Stage: "Before Abraham came to be, I was."
International Bible Translators 1981 _Jesus said to them, I am telling the truth: I was alive before Abraham was born!__
The Coptic Version the New Testament in the Southern Dialect, Horner: "Before Abraham became, I, I am being."
The Documents of the New Testament, Wade: "Before Abraham came into being, I have existed."
Noli, M.F.S. N.T. (1961) _Jesus answered them: Well, well, I tell you, I existed before Abraham was born.__
"I have been in existence since before Abraham was born" Kenneth McKay
The Concise Gospel and The Acts, Christianson: "I existed even before Abraham was born."
A Translators Handbook to the Gospel of John, Nida: "Before Abraham existed, I existed, or I have existed."
The Simple English Bible: "I was alive before Abraham was born."
The Original New Testament, Schonfield: "I tell you for a positive fact, I existed before Abraham was born."
The Complete Gospels Annotated Scholars Version, Miller: "I existed before there was an Abraham."
Swann, G. N.T. (1947) Jesus said to them, verily, verily I say unto you, I existed before Abraham was born_
International English Version (2001) "I was alive before Abraham was born"
The word EIMI (am) is in the present tense, but the surrounding context is not. They call this the “Extension from the Past” idiom or PPA (Present of Past Action). The reason for this are the words PRIN ABRAAM GENESQAI (before Abraham was). Many grammarians realize this, and have thus abandoned trying to read more into John 8:58. Here is a list of these grammarians:
Meyer, The Gospel of John, 293; Tholuck, Commentary on the Gospel of John (Edinburgh: T & T Clark, 1859), 243; J. N. Sanders and B. A. Mastin, A Commentary on the Gospel According to St. John (New York: Harper & Row, 1968), 236; F. Blass and A. Debrunner, A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, trans. Robert W. Funk (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1961), 168, sec. 322; Mckay, A New Syntax of the Verb in NT Greek, 41-42 etc etc.
To go along with this, the EGW EIMI at vss 24 and 28 has the OTI (that) before it, implying a predicate:
Verse 24, "EIPON OUN UMIN OTI APOQANEISQE EN TAIS AMARTIAIS UMWN EAN GAR MH PISTEUSHTE OTI EGW EIMI APOQANEISQE EN TAIS AMARTIAIS UMWN"
Verse 28, "EIPEN OUN [AUTOIS] O IHSOUS OTAN UYWSHTE TON UION TOU ANQRWPOU TOTE GNWSESQE OTI EGW EIMI KAI AP EMAUTOU POIW OUDEN ALLA KAQWS EDIDAXEN ME O PATHR TAUTA LALW"
Kenneth L McKay adds: The verb 'to be' is used differently, in what is presumably its basic meaning of 'be in existence', in John 8:58: prin Abraam genesthai ego eimi, which would be most naturally translated 'I have been in existence since before Abraham was born.'
BDAG also says, "The formula egw eimi is oft. used in the gospels (corresp. to hebr. aWh ynla} Dt 32:39; Is 43:10), in such a way that the predicate must be understood fr. the context: Mt 14:27; Mk 6:50;13:6; 14:62; Lk 22:70; J 4:26; 6:20;8:24, 28; 13:19; 18:5f and oft.-In a question mhti egw eimi; surely it is not I? Mt 26:22,25." If you notice, John 8:58 is not mentioned here, this is because the eimi in 24 and 28 is predicated by the preceding OTI. In verse 58 however, the eimi is strictly a verb because of its connection with the adverbial prin. PRIN ABRAAM GENESQAI EGW EIMI
The CARM website stresses "context" as does the BDAG lexicon above, so let us look at the context of John 8:56-59 (using the ASV Bible):
Jesus identifies himself as the one "sent" by a superior, he did not come of his own accord (Jn.8:16,29,42,). This superior is identified as "Father" and "God" (8:54). Is not the sender the superior of the one sent? (Jn.13:16 cf Jn. 14:28). Jesus does nothing of his "own initiative" and he can only speak what he was "taught" by the Father (8:28). Jesus does not seek his own glory, but God's and "keeps His word" (8:50, 54). Could this be said of Almighty God?
So why do the Jews try to kill him? Probably for the same reason that they stoned Stephen. Does this mean that Stephen was claiming equality with God?
Let us look at the context even more closely:
Jesus says they will die (v.21)
Jesus says they are killers (v.37,40)
Jesus says their Father is not God (v.41)
Jesus says their Father is Satan (v.44)
Jesus says he is above Abraham (vss. 53-58)
Says A Rabbinic Anthology, “So great is the [merit] of Abraham that he can atone for all the vanities committed and lies uttered by Israel in this world.” (London, 1938, C. Montefiore and H. Loewe, p. 676)
It was only after all this, and after FIVE "I AM's" [EGW EIMI vss. 12, 18, 24, 28, 58] that they tried to stone him. The Jews did not understand the I AM to mean that he was saying he was Jehovah, they were upset at him for elevating himself above Abraham, and this is only heightened by the fact that he was hurling the above rebukes at them, simply put.
CARM and many others lay stress on the Septuagint at Exodus 3:14. The Septuagint (LXX) is perhaps the earliest translation (about 250 B.C.) of the Hebrew Old Testament and there is evidence to believe that 1st century Jews were familiar with the LXX. At Exodus 3:14 the LXX has EGW EIMI O WN (Ego eimi ho on) "I am the Being." Because EGW EIMI is also used at John 8:58 there is an attempt to link the two Scriptures together and thereby linking Jehovah and Jesus as the same person. (It should be noted that Jehovah was not present in the burning bush at Exodus 3, but rather an angel: "And the angel of Jehovah appeared unto him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush: and he looked, and, behold, the bush burned with fire, and the bush was not consumed." Ex. 3:2 ASV)
The Septuagint however is not a literal translation of the Hebrew. A literal rendering would be one akin to Aquila’s and Theodotion’s Greek Old Testament, “esomai hos esomia.” Translated, this reads “I will be what who I will be.” This is just like the TRUE reading at Exodus 3:14. If you check the footnotes in most mainstream Bibles, like the NIV, RSV, NRSV, TEV, NEB (but not the NASB) etc, you will see that this is the case. But why is this the true reading. Well 2 verses before the same Hebrew word (EHYEH) is used, there it is universally translated “I WILL BE.” Actually, for a translation of the Hebrew to be “I AM THAT I AM” would require the original Hebrew to read “ANI ASHER ANI”, a reading that we do not have at this verse.
Additionally, in the LXX, God is identified as the “ho on”, THE BEING, not the I AM. Yet, this is not carried forth in John 8:58.
Take a look at the Hebrew text here: The same Hebrew word (1961) is used 2 scriptures apart (right beside the 12 and the 14), but it is translated differently in v.14, in order to prop Jesus' claim to Jehovahhood.
The fact is, there are quite a few Bibles that do, for instance:
The Living New Testament: "The absolute truth is that I was in existence before Abraham was ever born."
The 20th Century New Testament: "before Abraham existed I was."
Noyes, G.R. N.T. (1878) _Jesus said to them, truly, truly do I say to you, from before Abraham was, I have been.__
Hanson, J.W. New Covenant (1884) _Jesus said to them,_truly, truly, I say to you, I am before Abraham was born.__
Kraeling, E.G. Four Gospels (1962) _With another amen-saying, Jesus declares to them that before Abraham was, He (Jesus) is (hint of His preexistence)._
Parker, P.G. Clarified N.T._Jesus answered, before Abraham existed, I existed._
Cotton Patch Version (1970) _To this Jesus replied, I existed before Abraham was born.__
Ledyard, G.H. New Life Testament (1969) _Jesus said to them, for sure I tell you, before Abraham was born, I was and sum and always will be._
Dr. E.C. Dymond N.T. (1972) __Yes, indeed!; said Jesus: _He saw me in prospect. The fact is, that long before Abraham was conceived in his mother_s womb, that individual who I now am had been conceived in God's mind: He had completed the plan and specifications, so to speak, and therefore He was able to give Abraham a mental preview of me__.
Good News for the World (1969) _Jesus answer, I tell you the truth. I already was before Abraham was
born.__
The Complete Bible, An American Translation Goodspeed: "I tell you I existed before Abraham was born."
New Living Translation: "I existed before Abraham was even born."
The Living Bible: "I was in existence before Abraham was ever born."
Lattimore: "Truly, truly I tell you, I am from before Abraham was born."
The New Testament, From the Peshitta Text, Lamsa: "Before Abraham was born, I was."
An American Translation, In The Language of Today, Beck: "I was before Abraham."
New Testament Contemporary English Version: "I tell you.that even before Abraham was, I was, and I am."
The Unvarnished New Testament: "Before Abraham was born, I have already been."
The New Testament, Kleist & Lilly: "I am here-and I was before Abraham."
The New Testament in the Language of the People, Williams: "I existed before Abraham was born."
The New Testament, Noyes: "From before Abraham was, I have been."
A Translation of the Four Gospels, Lewis: "Before Abraham was, I have been."
Wakefield, G. N.T. (1795) _Jesus said unto them: Verily verily I say unto you, before Abraham was born, I am He._
The Syriac New Testament, Murdock: "Before Abraham existed I was."
The Curetonian Version of the Four Gospels, Burkitt& The Old Georgian Version of the Gospel of John,
Blake & Briere "Before Abraham came to be, I was."
The New Testament Or Rather the New Covenant, Sharpe: "I was before Abraham was born."
The 20th Century New Testament 1904: "Before Abraham existed I was already what I am."
The New Testament, Stage: "Before Abraham came to be, I was."
International Bible Translators 1981 _Jesus said to them, I am telling the truth: I was alive before Abraham was born!__
The Coptic Version the New Testament in the Southern Dialect, Horner: "Before Abraham became, I, I am being."
The Documents of the New Testament, Wade: "Before Abraham came into being, I have existed."
Noli, M.F.S. N.T. (1961) _Jesus answered them: Well, well, I tell you, I existed before Abraham was born.__
"I have been in existence since before Abraham was born" Kenneth McKay
The Concise Gospel and The Acts, Christianson: "I existed even before Abraham was born."
A Translators Handbook to the Gospel of John, Nida: "Before Abraham existed, I existed, or I have existed."
The Simple English Bible: "I was alive before Abraham was born."
The Original New Testament, Schonfield: "I tell you for a positive fact, I existed before Abraham was born."
The Complete Gospels Annotated Scholars Version, Miller: "I existed before there was an Abraham."
Swann, G. N.T. (1947) Jesus said to them, verily, verily I say unto you, I existed before Abraham was born_
International English Version (2001) "I was alive before Abraham was born"
The word EIMI (am) is in the present tense, but the surrounding context is not. They call this the “Extension from the Past” idiom or PPA (Present of Past Action). The reason for this are the words PRIN ABRAAM GENESQAI (before Abraham was). Many grammarians realize this, and have thus abandoned trying to read more into John 8:58. Here is a list of these grammarians:
Meyer, The Gospel of John, 293; Tholuck, Commentary on the Gospel of John (Edinburgh: T & T Clark, 1859), 243; J. N. Sanders and B. A. Mastin, A Commentary on the Gospel According to St. John (New York: Harper & Row, 1968), 236; F. Blass and A. Debrunner, A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, trans. Robert W. Funk (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1961), 168, sec. 322; Mckay, A New Syntax of the Verb in NT Greek, 41-42 etc etc.
To go along with this, the EGW EIMI at vss 24 and 28 has the OTI (that) before it, implying a predicate:
Verse 24, "EIPON OUN UMIN OTI APOQANEISQE EN TAIS AMARTIAIS UMWN EAN GAR MH PISTEUSHTE OTI EGW EIMI APOQANEISQE EN TAIS AMARTIAIS UMWN"
Verse 28, "EIPEN OUN [AUTOIS] O IHSOUS OTAN UYWSHTE TON UION TOU ANQRWPOU TOTE GNWSESQE OTI EGW EIMI KAI AP EMAUTOU POIW OUDEN ALLA KAQWS EDIDAXEN ME O PATHR TAUTA LALW"
Kenneth L McKay adds: The verb 'to be' is used differently, in what is presumably its basic meaning of 'be in existence', in John 8:58: prin Abraam genesthai ego eimi, which would be most naturally translated 'I have been in existence since before Abraham was born.'
BDAG also says, "The formula egw eimi is oft. used in the gospels (corresp. to hebr. aWh ynla} Dt 32:39; Is 43:10), in such a way that the predicate must be understood fr. the context: Mt 14:27; Mk 6:50;13:6; 14:62; Lk 22:70; J 4:26; 6:20;8:24, 28; 13:19; 18:5f and oft.-In a question mhti egw eimi; surely it is not I? Mt 26:22,25." If you notice, John 8:58 is not mentioned here, this is because the eimi in 24 and 28 is predicated by the preceding OTI. In verse 58 however, the eimi is strictly a verb because of its connection with the adverbial prin. PRIN ABRAAM GENESQAI EGW EIMI
The CARM website stresses "context" as does the BDAG lexicon above, so let us look at the context of John 8:56-59 (using the ASV Bible):
Jesus identifies himself as the one "sent" by a superior, he did not come of his own accord (Jn.8:16,29,42,). This superior is identified as "Father" and "God" (8:54). Is not the sender the superior of the one sent? (Jn.13:16 cf Jn. 14:28). Jesus does nothing of his "own initiative" and he can only speak what he was "taught" by the Father (8:28). Jesus does not seek his own glory, but God's and "keeps His word" (8:50, 54). Could this be said of Almighty God?
So why do the Jews try to kill him? Probably for the same reason that they stoned Stephen. Does this mean that Stephen was claiming equality with God?
Let us look at the context even more closely:
Jesus says they will die (v.21)
Jesus says they are killers (v.37,40)
Jesus says their Father is not God (v.41)
Jesus says their Father is Satan (v.44)
Jesus says he is above Abraham (vss. 53-58)
Says A Rabbinic Anthology, “So great is the [merit] of Abraham that he can atone for all the vanities committed and lies uttered by Israel in this world.” (London, 1938, C. Montefiore and H. Loewe, p. 676)
It was only after all this, and after FIVE "I AM's" [EGW EIMI vss. 12, 18, 24, 28, 58] that they tried to stone him. The Jews did not understand the I AM to mean that he was saying he was Jehovah, they were upset at him for elevating himself above Abraham, and this is only heightened by the fact that he was hurling the above rebukes at them, simply put.
CARM and many others lay stress on the Septuagint at Exodus 3:14. The Septuagint (LXX) is perhaps the earliest translation (about 250 B.C.) of the Hebrew Old Testament and there is evidence to believe that 1st century Jews were familiar with the LXX. At Exodus 3:14 the LXX has EGW EIMI O WN (Ego eimi ho on) "I am the Being." Because EGW EIMI is also used at John 8:58 there is an attempt to link the two Scriptures together and thereby linking Jehovah and Jesus as the same person. (It should be noted that Jehovah was not present in the burning bush at Exodus 3, but rather an angel: "And the angel of Jehovah appeared unto him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush: and he looked, and, behold, the bush burned with fire, and the bush was not consumed." Ex. 3:2 ASV)
The Septuagint however is not a literal translation of the Hebrew. A literal rendering would be one akin to Aquila’s and Theodotion’s Greek Old Testament, “esomai hos esomia.” Translated, this reads “I will be what who I will be.” This is just like the TRUE reading at Exodus 3:14. If you check the footnotes in most mainstream Bibles, like the NIV, RSV, NRSV, TEV, NEB (but not the NASB) etc, you will see that this is the case. But why is this the true reading. Well 2 verses before the same Hebrew word (EHYEH) is used, there it is universally translated “I WILL BE.” Actually, for a translation of the Hebrew to be “I AM THAT I AM” would require the original Hebrew to read “ANI ASHER ANI”, a reading that we do not have at this verse.
Additionally, in the LXX, God is identified as the “ho on”, THE BEING, not the I AM. Yet, this is not carried forth in John 8:58.
Take a look at the Hebrew text here: The same Hebrew word (1961) is used 2 scriptures apart (right beside the 12 and the 14), but it is translated differently in v.14, in order to prop Jesus' claim to Jehovahhood.
Which versions accurately translate EHYEH as I WILL BE or a similar rendering at Exodus 3:14: The James Moffatt Translation, Smith & Goodspeed's An American Translation. New World Translation, New Jewish Publication Society footnote [hereafter "ftn"], The Schocken Bible, Amplified Bible, TEV ftn., RSV ftn., Rotherham, Byington, NIV ftn., CEV ftn., NEB ftn., REB ftn., Living Bible ftn., NRSV., etc.
A few verses after Jesus' statement in John 8:58, a blind beggar also uses the words I AM/EGW EIMI. Does this make him God as well?
A few verses after Jesus' statement in John 8:58, a blind beggar also uses the words I AM/EGW EIMI. Does this make him God as well?
Do we have the translator's notes available in which they give their reasons for translating Jn 8:58 as they do? Just listing their translations is interesting but their reasons would be even more valuable.
ReplyDeleteI have never seen commentary on this in these Bibles. There are many discussions online about this, such as http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/archives/96-08/0208.html
ReplyDelete