"The New World Translation of John 1:1 appears to be unique in using the phrase 'a god'"

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From a recent facebook post: The New World Translation...translates John 1:1 into English as follows:
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. NWT, 2013
The Greek text states,
EN ARCH HN O LOGOS KAI O LOGOS HN PROS TON QEON KAI QEOS HN O LOGOS NA28
The New World Translation of John 1:1 appears to be unique in using the phrase “a god” to translate the Greek word QEOS. Unless I am mistaken, all other versions translate it as “God.”

Reply: No they don't. Many versions do likewise (or similar). 

Facebook post: For example, the translation in the KJV, NASB, and NIV is identical:
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Is there any justification in the original Greek text for translating QEOS into English as “a god”?

Reply: Of course there is. The construction at John 1:1c is a preverbal predicate nominative (QEOS HN/verb hO LOGOS) We have many occurrences of preverbal predicate nominatives in John's Gospel that add the indefinite article in English:

4:19 A prophet

6:70 A devil

8:44 A murderer

8:44 A liar

8:48 A Samaritan

9:17 A prophet

10:1 A thief

10:13 A hired hand

10:33 A man

12:6 A thief

18:37 A king

C.H.Dodd writes:
“If a translation were a matter of substituting words, a possible translation of [theos en ho logos]; would be “The Word was a god”. As a word-for-word translation it cannot be faulted." Technical Papers for The Bible Translator, Vol 28, No.1, January 1977.

Trinitarian Murray J. Harris has written: “Accordingly, from the point of view of grammar alone,[QEOS HN hO LOGOS] could be rendered “the Word was a god,….” -Jesus As God, 1992, p.60.

J. W. Wenham, in The Elements of New Testament Greek, writes: “As far as grammar alone is concerned, such a sentence could be printed theos estin ho logos, which would mean either, ‘The Word is a god’, or, ‘The Word is the god’. The interpretation of John 1.1 will depend upon whether the writer is held to believe in only one God or in more than one god.” Thus, theology rather than grammar is the stated reason for preferring ‘The Word was God.'”

It is often remarked that a Jew would never have translated "the word was a god" as that would have been contrary to his monotheistic beliefs, but Jews have historically attached the title of God to angels and men.

Perhaps someone should translate the Bible on only grammatical grounds. Wouldn't that be refreshing.