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Reply: The main difference here is the placement of the verb before the noun, while at John 1:1c the verb is placed after the noun.
However, we already have many instances in John where we translate with the indefinite article "a" where the verb is placed after the noun:
John 4:19 has PROFHTHS EI SU which translates to: "you are a prophet."
John 6:70 has DIABOLOS ESTIN which translates to: "is a slanderer."
John 8:34 has DOULOS ESTIN which translates to: "is a slave."
John 8:44 has ANQRWPOKTONOS HN which translates to "a murderer."
John 8:44 has EUSTHS ESTIN which translates to "he is a liar."
John 8:48 has SAMARITHS EI SU which translates to "you are a Samaritan."
John 9:8 has PROSAITHS HN which translates to "as a beggar."
John 9:17 has PROFTHS ESTIN which translates to "He is a prophet."
John 9:24 has hAMARTWLOS ESTIN which translates to "is a sinner."
John 9:25 has hAMARTWLOS ESTIN which translates to "he is a sinner."
John 10:1 has KLEPTHS ESTIN which translates to "is a thief"
John 10:13 has MISQWTOS ESTIN which translates to "a hired hand."
John 12:6 has KLEPTHS HN which translates to "he was a thief."
John 18:35 has MHTI EGO IOUDAIOS EIMI which translates to "I am not a Jew, am I?"
John 18:37 has BASILEUS EI SU which translates to "So you are a king?"
John 18:37 also has BASILEUS EIMI EGW which translates to "I am a king."
Not only that, John 1:14 can be translated indefinitely as well, and some Bibles actually do this:
"The Word became a human being." CEV, GNT, A Translator's Handbook on the Gospel of John by Barclay Newman & Eugene Albert Nida, Biography of the Biblical God by E. Asamoah-Yaw, NIRV
"The Word became a man" ICB
"The Word became a human" NCV
So, if you compare John 1:14 to John 1:1c, you can insert the indefinite "a" in both Scriptures to flesh out the proper meaning.
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